Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT Tiếng Anh (Lần 2) - Mã đề 410 - Năm học 2023-2024 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Giang (Có đáp án)

Nội dung tài liệu: Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT Tiếng Anh (Lần 2) - Mã đề 410 - Năm học 2023-2024 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Giang (Có đáp án)

1. SỞ GDĐT BẮC GIANG KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2024 ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Họ, tên thí sinh: . Mã đề thi 410 Số báo danh: . . Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 1. The doctor gave me a vitamin shot to increase my energy and eliminate fatigue. A. activity B. concentration C. exhaustion D. improvement Question 2. He held an ice pack on his swollen ankle to alleviate the pain. A. relieve B. develop C. repeat D. achieve Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 3 to 17. Question 3. They‟re very happy with their new flat, ______? A. aren‟t they B. do they C. weren‟t they D. are they Question 4. What time would it be convenient ______ me to come over? A. in B. about C. for D. at Question 5. I know it‟s a difficult decision, but you have to make it sooner or later. You can‟t ______ forever. A. call it away B. put it away C. call it off D. put it off Question 6. Even when he‟s very angry, my dad never ______ or uses bad language. A. tells B. swears C. whispers D. broadcasts Question 7. They will demonstrate the software program ______. A. when they hold the press conference B. as soon as they held the press conference C. after they had held the press conference D. when they will hold the press conference Question 8. Rodney isn‟t exactly keen on exercise, but he isn‟t ______ to the occasional walk in the country. A. reluctant B. repugnant C. contrary D. averse Question 9. Remember ______ Alan tomorrow. – Don‟t worry. I won‟t forget. A. phoning B. phone C. to phone D. to phoning Question 10. They are one of ______ families in the country. They‟ve got so much money that they don‟t know what to do with it. A. the more rich B. the richer C. the most rich D. the richest Question 11. Most of my mates go for a drink after work, but I don‟t. Going to the pub isn‟t really my ______. A. glass of beer B. bread and butter C. cup of tea D. slice of cake Question 12. Floods occur almost everywhere, ______ widespread damage or even death. A. causing B. to cause C. is caused D. caused Question 13. He is trying to ______ the bad habit of using the Internet all day. A. give B. cut C. create D. break Question 14. The robot named Sophia ______ on April 19, 2015. A. was activating B. was activated C. activates D. has activated Question 15. We read ______ article about plastic bags and how they cause pollution. A. an B. a C. Ø (zero article) D. the Question 16. He ______ only three letters to his parents since he joined the army. A. is writing B. wrote C. has written D. would write Question 17. Many people have objected to the use of animals in ______ experiments. A. scientifically B. scientific C. scientist D. science Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 18. Mary arrived at the airport. Shortly after that, her flight started boarding. A. No sooner had Mary arrived at the airport than her flight started boarding. B. Had it not been for Mary‟s arrival at the airport, her flight would have boarded. C. Not until Mary‟s flight started boarding did she arrive at the airport. D. Barely had Mary's flight started boarding when she arrived at the airport. Mã đề thi 410 Trang 1/4
2. Question 19. He lacks basic qualifications. He can‟t apply for the job. A. If only he hadn‟t lacked basic qualifications, he could have applied for the job. B. Provided that he has basic qualifications, he can‟t apply for the job. C. If he had lacked basic qualifications, he couldn‟t have applied for the job. D. He wishes he didn‟t lack basic qualifications so that he could apply for the job. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 20 to 24. PUSHING THE FRONTIERS OF SCIENCE Humans have been thinking about the universe and (20) ______ what is out there for centuries, and ever since the space race of the „50s and „60s and the boom in technological developments, the belief that we might actually be able to venture into outer space has grown. One of the main fascinations has been with our neighbouring planet, Mars. Some see the red star as hope for the survival of the human race (21) ______ this planet is thought of as a possible site for a human colony. Since the Italian astronomer Giovanni Schiaparelli first made map to document the surface of Mars in 1878, there have been (22) ______ speculations to whether the planet can support life. Schiaparelli believed that it already did. In fact, he put forward the idea that the channels (23) ______ he saw on the planet‟s surface were not natural but created by an advanced race of Martians. It was not until scientists had access to more powerful telescopes that his theories were disproved. Today, man‟s desire to (24) ______ the reaches of the galaxy doesn‟t seem to be diminishing. One day, will we eventually be living among the stars? Question 20. A. wondering B. pondering C. guessing D. inventing Question 21. A. although B. but C. because D. moreover Question 22. A. little B. every C. another D. many Question 23. A. when B. that C. who D. where Question 24. A. explore B. experiment C. extend D. examine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 25. “I can‟t explain the rules of this game,” Linda said. A. Linda said that I can‟t explain the rules of that game. B. Linda said that I couldn‟t explain the rules of this game. C. Linda said that she couldn‟t explain the rules of that game. D. Linda said that she can‟t explain the rules of that game. Question 26. My family last ate out three weeks ago. A. My family didn‟t eat out for three weeks. B. My family has eaten out for three weeks. C. My family has three weeks to eat out. D. The last time my family ate out was three weeks ago. Question 27. It is not necessary for you to take this training course. A. You needn‟t take this training course. B. You mustn‟t take this training course. C. You must take this training course. D. You can‟t take this training course. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 28. Throughout her life, Ms. Pumpkin suffered from terrible loneliness. She didn‟t have a shoulder to cry on. A. a supportive friend B. a sympathetic listener C. a comforting presence D. an unsupportive individual Question 29. The next day, the disease cleared up and she felt sufficiently well to go to work. A. largely B. enough C. deficiently D. adequately Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 36. In the modern era of technology, we can barely imagine our day-to-day activities without electronic devices. Devices with Internet access have become the source of information, entertainment, and even work, making remote jobs more and more popular. The same trend of digitalization came to the book industry, leading to the rise of electronic books, or shortly e-books. Whereas many people predict the extinction of printed books, book shops are still open, and their owners do not seem to plan closing businesses anytime soon. This question is complex, and both material and electronic books have plenty of pros and cons. Mã đề thi 410 Trang 2/4
3. Electronic books‟ admirers prove that buying printed books is not an ecologically friendly option. One Kindle can contain thousands of books, saving millions of trees. Although an e-book needs electricity to be charged, it can last much longer without a charger compared to a smartphone, which, on average, needs to be recharged every day. In this way, the electricity consumption is not that large for e- books, and their contribution to the deforestation decrease is quite important. A printed copy can last longer, even though ads tell us that electronic devices are timeless. While paper may seem fragile, electronic books are subject to the evolution of digital media. The software and formats used today can change dramatically or even disappear as technology advances. Indeed, what will happen if Amazon stops producing its Kindles? What will happen to your digital library? So many questions that do not arise with a paper book. In any way, we still have books brought to our homes by our grandparents; at the same time, it is highly doubtful that our grandchildren will still be using our e- books. The arrival of the e-book readers has shaken the literary world, but the paper book is still far from saying its last word. These two reading instruments coexist rather well in the literary world. The digital book has not replaced the paper book. On the contrary, it complements the latter, giving us a more extensive choice. Question 30. Which of the following can best serve as the title of the passage? A. Will e-books make real books disappear? B. The impact of digitalisation. C. Is it good to have an e-book? D. The new trend of reading. Question 31. The pronoun “their” refers to ______. A. book industry‟s B. e-books‟ C. book shops‟ D. printed books‟ Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following is the advantage of e-books over printed ones? A. Consuming less energy. B. Protecting the environment. C. Existing for a longer time. D. Depending on technological advances. Question 33. The word “fragile” mostly means ______. A. easily damaged B. expensive C. less protected D. rough Question 34. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE, according to the passage? A. Paper books can be more durable than electronic books. B. The format of electronic books may change with technological advancements. C. Bookshops are closing down due to the rise of electronic books. D. E-books have a smaller environmental footprint compared to printed books. Question 35. The word “shaken” can be best replaced by ______. A. totally destroyed B. easily created C. completely changed D. instantly recognized Question 36. Which of the following can be inferred about the future of electronic books and printed books? A. The role of printed books in the literary world is indispensable. B. Electronic books will become obsolete due to technological changes. C. Electronic books will eventually become the sole format for reading. D. The popularity of printed books will decline rapidly in the near future. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 37. Whenever I‟m in a sociable situation with my boss, we seem to run out of conversation after two minutes! A. sociable B. Whenever C. conversation D. run out of Question 38. It‟s advised that students set goals for their study and be determined to achieve it. A. set B. it C. advised D. be determined Question 39. Last week, we see a grandeur parade in celebration of 70th anniversary of Dien Bien Phu victory. A. celebration B. parade C. see D. victory Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 44. According to the American Red Cross, there‟s a 97% chance that someone you know will need a blood transfusion. Blood donors - especially donors with certain blood types - are always in demand. Mã đề thi 410 Trang 3/4
4. To donate blood, the American Red Cross requires that people be at least 17 years old and weigh more than 110 pounds. (In some states, the age is 16 with a parent‟s permission.) Donors must be in good health and will be screened for certain medical conditions. Donors who meet these requirements can give blood every 56 days. Blood donation starts before you walk in the door of the blood bank. Before donating, you‟ll need to answer some questions about your medical history, and have your temperature, pulse, blood pressure, and blood count checked. The medical history includes questions that help blood bank staff decide if a person is healthy enough to donate blood. Donated blood gets tested for viruses, including HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C and West Nile virus. If any of these things are found, the blood is destroyed. Are there any risks? A person can‟t get an infection or disease from giving blood. The needles and other equipment used are sterile and they‟re used only on one person and then thrown away. Sometimes people who donate blood notice a few minor side effects like nausea, lightheadedness, dizziness, or fainting, but these symptoms usually go away quickly. The donor‟s body usually replaces the liquid part of blood (plasma) within 72 hours after giving blood. It generally takes about 4-8 weeks to regenerate the red blood cells lost during a blood donation. An iron-fortified diet plus daily iron tablets can help rebuild a donor‟s red blood supply. Question 40. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The procedures and safety measures in blood donation. B. The medical benefits of receiving a blood transfusion. C. The importance of regular blood donations for public health. D. The necessity of blood transfusions. Question 41. The word “screened” is closest in meaning to _____. A. showed B. affected C. examined D. trained Question 42. The pronoun “that” refers to _____. A. blood B. temperature C. medical history D. questions Question 43. According to the passage, a blood donor ______. A. can be less than 110 pounds in weight B. can give blood whenever they feel healthy C. gets infected from giving blood D. may suffer some side effects Question 44. It is stated in the passage that donated blood will be tested for the following viruses EXCEPT ______. A. hepatitis B and C viruses B. West Nile virus C. influenza virus D. HIV virus Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 45. A. honey B. house C. hotel D. honour Question 46. A. thank B. make C. place D. date Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 47. Nam is asking to borrow Minh‟s book. -Nam: “Can I borrow your book, Minh?” -Minh: “ ______” A. Congratulations! B. Here you are. C. Thanks a lot. D. Me too. Question 48. Mary and John are talking about finding a job. -Mary: “I think it is difficult to find a good job in the present economic climate.” -John: “______. It is extremely challenging.” A. It‟s a good idea B. Not at all C. That‟s exactly what I think D. I‟m sorry, but I disagree with you Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 49. A. special B. study C. water D. allow Question 50. A. natural B. artistic C. selection D. determine ------ HẾT ------ Mã đề thi 410 Trang 4/4