Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT Tiếng Anh (Lần 2) - Mã đề 414 - Năm học 2023-2024 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Giang (Có đáp án)

Nội dung tài liệu: Đề thi tốt nghiệp THPT Tiếng Anh (Lần 2) - Mã đề 414 - Năm học 2023-2024 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Giang (Có đáp án)

1. SỞ GDĐT BẮC GIANG KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2024 ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Họ, tên thí sinh: . Mã đề thi 414 Số báo danh: . . Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1. Last week, we see a grandeur parade in celebration of 70th anniversary of Dien Bien Phu victory. A. parade B. victory C. see D. celebration Question 2. Whenever I‟m in a sociable situation with my boss, we seem to run out of conversation after two minutes! A. run out of B. sociable C. conversation D. Whenever Question 3. It‟s advised that students set goals for their study and be determined to achieve it. A. be determined B. it C. set D. advised Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 4. Mary and John are talking about finding a job. -Mary: “I think it is difficult to find a good job in the present economic climate.” -John: “______. It is extremely challenging.” A. That‟s exactly what I think B. Not at all C. It‟s a good idea D. I‟m sorry, but I disagree with you Question 5. Nam is asking to borrow Minh‟s book. -Nam: “Can I borrow your book, Minh?” -Minh: “ ______” A. Thanks a lot. B. Me too. C. Here you are. D. Congratulations! Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 6. Mary arrived at the airport. Shortly after that, her flight started boarding. A. No sooner had Mary arrived at the airport than her flight started boarding. B. Not until Mary‟s flight started boarding did she arrive at the airport. C. Barely had Mary's flight started boarding when she arrived at the airport. D. Had it not been for Mary‟s arrival at the airport, her flight would have boarded. Question 7. He lacks basic qualifications. He can‟t apply for the job. A. If he had lacked basic qualifications, he couldn‟t have applied for the job. B. Provided that he has basic qualifications, he can‟t apply for the job. C. If only he hadn‟t lacked basic qualifications, he could have applied for the job. D. He wishes he didn‟t lack basic qualifications so that he could apply for the job. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 8. A. artistic B. determine C. selection D. natural Question 9. A. special B. study C. water D. allow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 10. It is not necessary for you to take this training course. A. You can‟t take this training course. B. You must take this training course. C. You needn‟t take this training course. D. You mustn‟t take this training course. Question 11. “I can‟t explain the rules of this game,” Linda said. A. Linda said that she couldn‟t explain the rules of that game. B. Linda said that she can‟t explain the rules of that game. C. Linda said that I can‟t explain the rules of that game. D. Linda said that I couldn‟t explain the rules of this game. Question 12. My family last ate out three weeks ago. A. My family has eaten out for three weeks. Mã đề thi 414 Trang 1/4
2. B. The last time my family ate out was three weeks ago. C. My family didn‟t eat out for three weeks. D. My family has three weeks to eat out. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 13 to 19. In the modern era of technology, we can barely imagine our day-to-day activities without electronic devices. Devices with Internet access have become the source of information, entertainment, and even work, making remote jobs more and more popular. The same trend of digitalization came to the book industry, leading to the rise of electronic books, or shortly e-books. Whereas many people predict the extinction of printed books, book shops are still open, and their owners do not seem to plan closing businesses anytime soon. This question is complex, and both material and electronic books have plenty of pros and cons. Electronic books‟ admirers prove that buying printed books is not an ecologically friendly option. One Kindle can contain thousands of books, saving millions of trees. Although an e-book needs electricity to be charged, it can last much longer without a charger compared to a smartphone, which, on average, needs to be recharged every day. In this way, the electricity consumption is not that large for e- books, and their contribution to the deforestation decrease is quite important. A printed copy can last longer, even though ads tell us that electronic devices are timeless. While paper may seem fragile, electronic books are subject to the evolution of digital media. The software and formats used today can change dramatically or even disappear as technology advances. Indeed, what will happen if Amazon stops producing its Kindles? What will happen to your digital library? So many questions that do not arise with a paper book. In any way, we still have books brought to our homes by our grandparents; at the same time, it is highly doubtful that our grandchildren will still be using our e- books. The arrival of the e-book readers has shaken the literary world, but the paper book is still far from saying its last word. These two reading instruments coexist rather well in the literary world. The digital book has not replaced the paper book. On the contrary, it complements the latter, giving us a more extensive choice. Question 13. Which of the following can best serve as the title of the passage? A. The new trend of reading. B. Will e-books make real books disappear? C. The impact of digitalisation. D. Is it good to have an e-book? Question 14. The pronoun “their” refers to ______. A. e-books‟ B. printed books‟ C. book industry‟s D. book shops‟ Question 15. According to the passage, which of the following is the advantage of e-books over printed ones? A. Consuming less energy. B. Depending on technological advances. C. Existing for a longer time. D. Protecting the environment. Question 16. The word “fragile” mostly means ______. A. rough B. less protected C. expensive D. easily damaged Question 17. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE, according to the passage? A. Paper books can be more durable than electronic books. B. Bookshops are closing down due to the rise of electronic books. C. E-books have a smaller environmental footprint compared to printed books. D. The format of electronic books may change with technological advancements. Question 18. The word “shaken” can be best replaced by ______. A. instantly recognized B. totally destroyed C. completely changed D. easily created Question 19. Which of the following can be inferred about the future of electronic books and printed books? A. The popularity of printed books will decline rapidly in the near future. B. Electronic books will become obsolete due to technological changes. C. The role of printed books in the literary world is indispensable. D. Electronic books will eventually become the sole format for reading. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20. A. thank B. make C. date D. place Question 21. A. hotel B. honey C. honour D. house Mã đề thi 414 Trang 2/4
3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 22 to 26. PUSHING THE FRONTIERS OF SCIENCE Humans have been thinking about the universe and (22) ______ what is out there for centuries, and ever since the space race of the „50s and „60s and the boom in technological developments, the belief that we might actually be able to venture into outer space has grown. One of the main fascinations has been with our neighbouring planet, Mars. Some see the red star as hope for the survival of the human race (23) ______ this planet is thought of as a possible site for a human colony. Since the Italian astronomer Giovanni Schiaparelli first made map to document the surface of Mars in 1878, there have been (24) ______ speculations to whether the planet can support life. Schiaparelli believed that it already did. In fact, he put forward the idea that the channels (25) ______ he saw on the planet‟s surface were not natural but created by an advanced race of Martians. It was not until scientists had access to more powerful telescopes that his theories were disproved. Today, man‟s desire to (26) ______ the reaches of the galaxy doesn‟t seem to be diminishing. One day, will we eventually be living among the stars? Question 22. A. pondering B. inventing C. guessing D. wondering Question 23. A. although B. but C. because D. moreover Question 24. A. every B. another C. many D. little Question 25. A. where B. when C. who D. that Question 26. A. extend B. experiment C. examine D. explore Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 27. The doctor gave me a vitamin shot to increase my energy and eliminate fatigue. A. improvement B. concentration C. exhaustion D. activity Question 28. He held an ice pack on his swollen ankle to alleviate the pain. A. repeat B. achieve C. relieve D. develop Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 29 to 43. Question 29. He is trying to ______ the bad habit of using the Internet all day. A. give B. cut C. create D. break Question 30. The robot named Sophia ______ on April 19, 2015. A. was activating B. activates C. was activated D. has activated Question 31. What time would it be convenient ______ me to come over? A. for B. about C. at D. in Question 32. Rodney isn‟t exactly keen on exercise, but he isn‟t ______ to the occasional walk in the country. A. contrary B. repugnant C. averse D. reluctant Question 33. He ______ only three letters to his parents since he joined the army. A. is writing B. wrote C. would write D. has written Question 34. They‟re very happy with their new flat, ______? A. weren‟t they B. do they C. aren‟t they D. are they Question 35. Most of my mates go for a drink after work, but I don‟t. Going to the pub isn‟t really my ______. A. cup of tea B. bread and butter C. glass of beer D. slice of cake Question 36. Even when he‟s very angry, my dad never ______ or uses bad language. A. swears B. whispers C. tells D. broadcasts Question 37. Remember ______ Alan tomorrow. – Don‟t worry. I won‟t forget. A. phone B. phoning C. to phoning D. to phone Question 38. I know it‟s a difficult decision, but you have to make it sooner or later. You can‟t ______ forever. A. put it away B. put it off C. call it away D. call it off Question 39. Many people have objected to the use of animals in ______ experiments. A. science B. scientist C. scientific D. scientifically Question 40. Floods occur almost everywhere, ______ widespread damage or even death. A. caused B. is caused C. to cause D. causing Mã đề thi 414 Trang 3/4
4. Question 41. We read ______ article about plastic bags and how they cause pollution. A. the B. an C. Ø (zero article) D. a Question 42. They will demonstrate the software program ______. A. as soon as they held the press conference B. when they will hold the press conference C. after they had held the press conference D. when they hold the press conference Question 43. They are one of ______ families in the country. They‟ve got so much money that they don‟t know what to do with it. A. the richer B. the richest C. the more rich D. the most rich Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 48. According to the American Red Cross, there‟s a 97% chance that someone you know will need a blood transfusion. Blood donors - especially donors with certain blood types - are always in demand. To donate blood, the American Red Cross requires that people be at least 17 years old and weigh more than 110 pounds. (In some states, the age is 16 with a parent‟s permission.) Donors must be in good health and will be screened for certain medical conditions. Donors who meet these requirements can give blood every 56 days. Blood donation starts before you walk in the door of the blood bank. Before donating, you‟ll need to answer some questions about your medical history, and have your temperature, pulse, blood pressure, and blood count checked. The medical history includes questions that help blood bank staff decide if a person is healthy enough to donate blood. Donated blood gets tested for viruses, including HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C and West Nile virus. If any of these things are found, the blood is destroyed. Are there any risks? A person can‟t get an infection or disease from giving blood. The needles and other equipment used are sterile and they‟re used only on one person and then thrown away. Sometimes people who donate blood notice a few minor side effects like nausea, lightheadedness, dizziness, or fainting, but these symptoms usually go away quickly. The donor‟s body usually replaces the liquid part of blood (plasma) within 72 hours after giving blood. It generally takes about 4-8 weeks to regenerate the red blood cells lost during a blood donation. An iron-fortified diet plus daily iron tablets can help rebuild a donor‟s red blood supply. Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The importance of regular blood donations for public health. B. The medical benefits of receiving a blood transfusion. C. The necessity of blood transfusions. D. The procedures and safety measures in blood donation. Question 45. The word “screened” is closest in meaning to _____. A. trained B. examined C. affected D. showed Question 46. The pronoun “that” refers to _____. A. blood B. medical history C. temperature D. questions Question 47. According to the passage, a blood donor ______. A. can be less than 110 pounds in weight B. may suffer some side effects C. gets infected from giving blood D. can give blood whenever they feel healthy Question 48. It is stated in the passage that donated blood will be tested for the following viruses EXCEPT ______. A. hepatitis B and C viruses B. influenza virus C. HIV virus D. West Nile virus Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 49. Throughout her life, Ms. Pumpkin suffered from terrible loneliness. She didn‟t have a shoulder to cry on. A. an unsupportive individual B. a supportive friend C. a comforting presence D. a sympathetic listener Question 50. The next day, the disease cleared up and she felt sufficiently well to go to work. A. enough B. largely C. adequately D. deficiently ------ HẾT ------ Mã đề thi 414 Trang 4/4